QUEBEC-RESEARCH-L Archives

From: Fr John L <>
Subject: Re: [Q-R] QUESTION
Date: Mon, 12 May 2008 20:22:52 -0400
References: <d1c.23946a0a.355a32e6@aol.com>
In-Reply-To: <d1c.23946a0a.355a32e6@aol.com>

Jackie, your response is complete and accurate.??If there?is a footnote to be added, it is that the "contrat de mariage" is not a marriage, but a description of the assets owned by each party before the marriage, and a prescription for the distribution of assets upon the dissolution of the marriage, usually?upon the death of one of the spouses.? It corresponds to, in law, and usually, in time, with a "prenuptial agreement".?

Fr John L

-----Original Message-----
From:
To: ;
Sent: Mon, 12 May 2008 7:55 pm
Subject: Re: [Q-R] QUESTION



Hi Roch,

That's the same information that Jette gives. I think that sometimes, in the
absence of a contract before the marriage, a contract was later drawn up to
outline the terms of their agreement re: inheritance, disposition of
property, etc. -- serving the same purpose as a will.

I'm sure someone else will have a more complete response to this but this is
what I have been led to believe in the past.

Jackie




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This thread:

• [Q-R] QUESTION by Roch St-Pierre <>
  • Re: [Q-R] QUESTION by

    • Re: [Q-R] QUESTION by Fr John L <>