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Archiver > DNA-R1B1C7 > 2007-07 > 1185210219


From: "Ken Nordtvedt" <>
Subject: Re: [DNA-R1B1C7] Why did these languages supersede
Date: Mon, 23 Jul 2007 11:03:39 -0600
References: <c46.19776a51.33d63741@aol.com>


----- Original Message -----
From: <>
> Paul
> keep in mind The only real open issue is, Why did these languages
> supersede
> the earlier languages of Europe (except in Basque territory)? Was this
> supersession accomplished by chariots, agriculture, or trade? In other
> words, why
> did an Indo-European language become more convenient or desirable than a
> native's own?

IE language to Europe or IE languages to Europe? Is the scenario that a
single IE root language came as replacement all over Europe and then divided
into its many branches --- Italic, Celtic, Germanic, Slavic, Greek,
......... etc ? After all the years of study of these languages in Europe
the underlying scenario still seems foggy. Needless to say, the
researchers in this field dig up no hard copy artifacts from very far into
the past.


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