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Subject: [DNA-R1B1C7] Why did these languages supersede
Date: Mon, 23 Jul 2007 12:54:25 EDT


Just remember that Indo-European refers to a language group, not a people.

Paul


Paul
keep in mind The only real open issue is, Why did these languages supersede
the earlier languages of Europe (except in Basque territory)? Was this
supersession accomplished by chariots, agriculture, or trade? In other words, why
did an Indo-European language become more convenient or desirable than a
native's own? common since tells us the language came with the migrates from the
stem of the source.that dominated.

Gene Ashley



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